Welcome to RL Chohan Judicial Academy
Excellent Coaching for the posts of Civil Judges -cum- Judicial Magistrates {PCS (Judicial)} and for Additional District and Sessions Judges, and all law subjects
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1. Section 4 of Limitation Act applies to (a) suits (b) appeal & applications (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above. |
2 Section 5 of Limitation Act applies to (a) suits (b) execution of a decree (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above. |
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3 Section 6 of Limitation Act can be
availed by (a) plaintiff(s) (b) defendant(s) (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above. |
4 Period of limitation stands extended, by
virtue of section 6 of Limitation Act for a maximum period of (a) 1 year (b) 3 years (c) 6 years (d) none of
above |
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5. Time which has begun to run can be
stopped in case of (a) minority (b) insanity (c) idiocy (d) none of the above. |
6 In computing the period of limitation for
appeal, review or revision, the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the
decree or order appealed shall be excluded under (a) section 12(1) (b) section 12(2) (c) section 13(3) (d) section 14(4). |
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7 Limitation for filing an appeal commences
from (a) the date of judgment (b) the date of signing of the
decree (c) the date of application
for copy of the judgment (d) the date of availability
of copy of the judgment. |
8. Under section 13 of Limitation Act, the
time is excluded (a) if the application for
leave to sue or appeal as a pauper is allowed (b) if the application for
leave to sue or appeal as a pauper is rejected (c) in both the cases (d) in none of the case. |
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9 Period during which proceedings stand
stayed by an injunction or order is excluded (a) under section 14 (b) under section 15 (c) under section 13 (d) under section 16. |
10 Time taken in proceedings to set aside
the sale, in suit for possession by a purchaser in execution, is liable to be
excluded (a) under section 15(4) (b) under section 15(2) (c) under section 15(3) (d) under section 15(1). |
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11. Under section 21, a suit is deemed to
have been instituted, in case of a new plaintiff impleaded/added (a) on the date on which the
new plaintiff is impleaded (b) on the date on which the
suit was initially instituted (c) on the date on which the
application for impleading a new plaintiff is made (d) none of the above. |
12 Which is not correct of law of
limitation (a) limitation bars the
judicial remedies (b) limitation is an adjective
law (c) limitation extinguishes
the right (d) limitation is a procedural
law. |
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13 Under section 21, can the court direct
the suit to have been instituted on an earlier date (a) yes, if the omission to
include the party was due to a mistake made in good faith (b) yes, if the omission to
include party was deliberate (c) in both (a) & (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b). |
14 Section 27 of Limitation Act applies to (a) suits (b) appeals (c) execution application (d) all the above. |
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15 Which is true of acknowledgements (a) extends the period of
limitation (b) confers an independent
right on a person (c) confers a title on the
person (d) all the above. |
16 Which is not an immovable property under
the Registration Act (a) hereditary allowances (b) lights (c) fisheries (d) none of the above. |
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17 A suit for possession based on the right
of previous possession & not on title can be filed (a) within one year of
dispossession (b) within three years of
dispossession (c) within twelve years of
dispossession (d) within six months of
dispossession. |
18 'Lease' has been defined in
(a) The Registration Act, 1908 (b) The Transfer of Property
Act, 1882 (c) The General Clauses Act,
1897 (d) only in (a) & (b). |
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19 (a) documents which are not at
all registrable (b) documents which are
compulsorily registrable (c) documents the registration
of which is optional (d) both (a) & (c). |
20 Under section 19,
Limitation Act, 1963 (a) payment by cheque which is dishonoured on
presentation amounts to part payment and shall save limitation (b) payment by cheque which is dishonoured on
presentation does not amount to part payment and will not save limitation (c) mere handing over the cheque which is dishonoured
on presenta-tion amounts to acknowledgment (d) either (a) or (c).D |
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21. Section 23 provides the time for
presentation of document for registration, before the proper officer, of (a) four months from the date
of execution (b) two months from the date
of execution (c) three months from the date
of execution (d) six months from the date
of execution. 37. |
22 A document executed out of India can be
registered if presented within (a) two months of its arrival
in India (b) four months of its arrival
in India (c) one month of its arrival
in India (d) six months of its arrival
in India. |
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23 Will can be presented for registration
within (a) four months of its
execution (b) six months of its
execution (c) at any time (d) two months of its
execution. |
24. An authority to adopt is (a) not compulsorily
registrable (b) compulsorily registrable (c) registration is optional (d) both (a) & (c). |
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25. The doctrine of 'relation back' in
the Registration Act is contained in
(a) section 42 (b) section 47 (c) section 48 (d) section 50. |
26. The object of section 47 is (a) to decide which of the two
or more registered instruments in respect of the same property is to have
effect (b) to decide which of the
two-a registered document and dual agreement, in respect of the same property
is to have effect (c) to decide which of the two
- a registered instrument and an unregistered instrument - in
respect of the same property is to have effect (d) all the above. |
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27 'X' executed a sale deed in favour of 'Y'
on 1-1-2002. Subsequently on 10-1-2002, 'X' executed a sale deed in respect
of the same property in favour of 'Z'. Thereafter the sale deed in favour of
'Z' executed on 10-1-2002 was registered on 20-1-2002. Whereas the sale deed
in favour of 'Y was registered on 30-1-2002.
In the said case, by virtue of
section 47 (a) the sale deed executed in
favour of 'Y' on 1-1-2002 & registered on 30.1.2002 shall have precedence
& confer title on 'Y' (b) the sale deed executed in
favour of 'Z' on 10-1-2002 & registered on 20-1-2002 shall have
precedence & confer title on 'Z' (c) both the sale deeds shall
be void (d) the sale deeds in favour
of 'Y' & 'Z' shall remain valid to the extent of 50% of the property. |
28 By virtue of section 49, an unregistered
authority to adopt (a) confers power to adopt (b) does not confer the power
to adopt (c) neither (a) nor (b) (d) either (a) or (b). |
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29. An unregistered document can be
admitted in evidence, as evidence of (a) part performance of
contract for the purposes of section 53A, Transfer of Property Act (b) collateral
transaction/facts (c) both (a) & (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b). |
30 Prior to the Indian Partnership Act,
1932 which came into force from 1 October, 1932 except section 69 which came
into force from 1 October, 1933, the law of partnership was provided in (a) Sale of Goods Act, 1930 (b) Indian Contract Act, 1872 (c) Transfer of Property Act,
1908 (d) English Partnership Act,
1890. |
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31 The relation of partnership arises from
contract and not from status, has been prescribed under (a) section 4 (b) section 5 (c) section 6 (d) section 7. |
32 The mode of determining the existence of
partnership has been laid down in (a) section 6 (b) section 5 (c) section 9 (d) section 10. |
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33 Which of the following is not an
essential requisite for creating a partnership as per section 4 (a) an agreement to carry on a
business (b) sharing of profits (c) sharing of losses (d) business to be carried by
all or any of them acting for all. |
34 Section 13 of the Indian Partnership
Act, 1932 is (a) a mixed statement of
rights and duties of the partners (b) a mixed statement of
duties and liabilities of the partners (c) a mixed statement of
rights and liabilities of the partners (d) a mixed statement of
rights, duties and liabilities of the partners. |
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35. A partner has a right to indemnity for
the acts done in (a) the ordinary & proper
conduct of the business (b) an emergency (c) both (a) and (b) |
36 The right to indemnity is lost on (a) the dissolution of the
partnership (b) the death of the partner (c) the retirement of the
partner (d) neither (a) nor (b) nor
(c). |
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37 Under section 14 of the Indian
Partnership Act, 1932, the property thrown into the common stock at the
commencement of the business (a) becomes the property of
the firm (b) remains the individual
property of the partners in the shares contributed by them (c) becomes the individual
property of the partners in equal shares irrespective of their contributions
and profit sharing ratio (d) either (a) or (c). |
38 Under
section 14 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, goodwill of the business is (a) property of the firm (b) property of the managing
partner (c) property of the partner
having the highest share in the profits (d) property of the partner
having the lowest share in the profits. |
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39. If a partner chooses to use any assets
of the partnership for his own purpose, it gives rise to (a) a civil liability of that
partner (b) a criminal liability of
that partner (c) both (a) and (b) (d) either (a) or (b). |
40. Muta under Mohammedan law means (a) a temporary marriage (b) a permanent marriage (c) a joint venture marriage (d) an illegal marriage. |
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41. Marriage in Islam is (a) a contract (b) a sacrament (c) a contract as well as a
sacrament (d) either a contract or a
sacrament. |
42. In Mohammedan law marriage is a (a) contract for the
legalisation of intercourse and the procreation of children (b) contract for the
procreation of children (c) contract for legalisation
of intercourse (d) contract for different
forms of sex relationship. |
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43. Marriage under Hanafi law must be performed before (a) two witnesses (b) three witnesses (c) four witnesses (d) six witnesses. |
44 For a valid Muslim marriage (a) offer and acceptance must
be at the same time (b) offer and acceptance must
be at the same place (c) offer and acceptance must
be at the same time and place (d) offer and acceptance may
be at different times and at different places. |
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45 In Muslim law, the majority is attained
at (a) the age of 12 years (b) the age of 9 years (c) the age of 18 years (d) the puberty. |
46 A marriage entered into by a girl while
she has not attained puberty under Muslim law is a (a) valid marriage (b) void marriage (c) voidable marriage (d) either (a) or (c). |
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47 Option of puberty means (a) a Muslim minor girl
married during minority by a guardian has a right to repudiate such marriage
on attaining puberty (b) a Muslim minor girl
married during minority by a guardian has no right to repudiate such marriage
on attaining puberty (c) a Muslim minor girl
married during minority by a guardian has a right to repudiate such marriage
on attaining puberty only with the permission of the court (d) a Muslim minor girl
married during minority by a guardian can repudiate such marriage with the
consent of her husband. |
48 'The option of puberty' can be exercised
by the female before attaining the age of
(a) 21 years (b) 18 years (c) 15 years (d) either (a) or (b) or (c). |
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49 Consummation of marriage before the age
of puberty (a) deprives the wife of her
option of puberty always (b) deprives the wife of her
option of puberty only under certain circumstances (c) does not deprive the wife
of her option of puberty (d) either (a) or (b). |
50 Option of puberty is lost (a) on consummation after
attaining puberty (b) on non-repudiation of marriage
before attaining the age of 18 years (c) both (a) and (b) (d) only (b) and not (a). |
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51 A Muslim can marry any number of wives
not exceeding four. If a Muslim marries a fifth wife, such a marriage shall
be (a) valid (b) irregular (c) void (d) either (a) or (c). |
52. . A Muslim is prevented from marrying
his wife's sister (a) during the subsistence of
marriage with his wife (b) after the death of his
wife (c) after the divorce of his
wife (d) all the above. |
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53 Before the commencement of the Transfer
of Property Act, 1882, the transfer of immovable properties in India were
governed by the (a) principles of English law
and equity (b) Indian Registration Act,
1908 (c) British State of Goods
Act, 1880 (d) Indian Contract Act, 1872. |
54. The courts, before the enactment of the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882, were forcing to decide property disputes
according to their own notion and justice and fairplay, (a) because judges were making
own laws (b) because of absence of any
specific statutory provisions on the property matters (c) because British Judges
were confused with Indian property disputes (d) because judges were
educated in British property laws. |
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55 The Transfer of Property Act, 1882, came
into effect from (a) 17th February, 1882 (b) 27th February, 1882 (c) 17th March, 1882 (d) 1st July, 1882. |
56. According to the Transfer of Property
Act, 1882 any State Government may from time to time exempt either any part
of territories from all or any of sections (a) 54, paragraphs 2 and 3,
59,107 and 123 (b) 54,107 and 123 (c) 54, 107 and 120 (d) 54,107 and 113. |
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57. Under the Transfer of Property Act,
1882, the term "attested" means
(a) attested by two or more
witnesses (b) attested by one witness
only (c) attested by two witnesses
only (d) no condition prevails. |
58 The chapters and sections of the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which relate to contracts shall be part of: (a) Indian Registration Act,
1908 (b) Sale of Goods Act, 1930 (c) General Clauses Act, 1897 (d) Indian Contract Act, 1872. |
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59. Chapter II of the Transfer of Property
Act shall not be deemed to effect any rule of (a) Mohammadan law (b) Christian law (c) Parsi law |
60 Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (a) the salary of a public
officer can be transferred (b) the salary of a public
officer cannot be transferred (c) no such provision is found
in the Act (d) none of the above. |
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61 No transfer of property can operate to
create an interest which is to take effect after the life time of one or more
persons living at the date of such transfer. These provisions come under: (a) rules against
retrospective transfer only (b) rules against perpetuity (c) rules against prospective
transfer (d) none of the above. |
62 Provision of longer period in the matter
of accumulation of property under section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act,
1882 amounts to (a) 18 years (b) 20 years (c) 22 years (d) 25 years. |
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63 The provision of contingent interest is
provided in: (a) section 20 of the Transfer
of Property Act, 1882 (b) section 21 of the Transfer
of Property Act, 1882 (c) section 22 of the Transfer
of Property Act, 1882 (d) section 23 of the Transfer
of Property Act, 1882. |
64. A transfers property to B for life and
after his death to C and D, equally to be divided between them or to the survivors
of them. C dies during life of B. D survives B. At B's death the property: (a) shall pass to D (b) shall pass to any person (c) shall pass to person who
is specifically named in transfer d) none of the above. |
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65 A transfer a garden to B for her life,
with a proviso that, in case B cuts down a certain wood, the transfer shall
cease to have any effect. B cuts down the wood. Decide the case in the light
of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (a) B loses his life interest
in the firm (b) B does not lose his life
interest in the firm (c) no such provision is made
under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (d) none of the above. |
66 The foundation of doctrine of election
under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is that a person taking the benefit
of an instrument: (a) must bear the burden (b) must not bear the burden (c) burden is not the subject
of election (d) none of the above. |
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67 The transfer by ostensible owner is
provided in .......section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (a) section 38 (b) section 39 (c) section 40 (d) section 41. |
68. The section 41 of the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882 is the statutory application of the law of estoppel. The
statement is (a) true (b) false (c) partly true (d) none of the above. |
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69. The provision of improvements made by
bona fide holders under defective titles is dealt in: (a) section 50 of the Transfer
of Property Act, 1882 (b) section 51 of the Transfer
of Property Act, 1882 (c) section 53 of the Transfer
of Property Act, 1882 (d) none of the above. |
70. Within the meaning of section 51 of the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transferee: (a) has lien on land for the
value of improvements (b) has no lien on the land
for the value of improvements (c) has condition lien on the
land for the value of improvements (d) none of the above. |
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71. . The principle of lis pendens embodied
in section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 pertains to: (a) bona fide purchase (b) public policy (c) auction sale (d) none of the above. |
72. Rule of lis pendens is applicable to
suits for specific performance of contracts to transfer immovable property.
The statement is: (a) true (b) false (c) partly true (d) none of the above. |
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73. . In case of a transfer hit by the
doctrine of lis pendens, the question of good faith which is essential to be
established before a equitable relief can be granted in favour of a
subsequent vendee under sections 41 or 51 of the Transfer of Property Act,
1882 is: (a) relevant (b) partly relevant (c) totally irrelevant (d) partly irrelevant. |
74 The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 came into
force on (a) 1st April, 1930 (b) 1st July, 1930 (c) 1st December, 1930 (d) 31st January, 1931. |
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75 The term "goods" in the sale
of goods means (a) specific goods only (b) ascertained goods only (c) ownership (d) subject matter. |
76 'Delivery' within the meaning of section
2(1) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, can be
(a) actual (b) constructive (c) symbolic (d) either (a) or (b) or (c). |
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77 A person is said to be 'insolvent' who
has ceased to pay his debts in the ordinary course of business, or cannot pay
his debts as they become due whether he has committed an act of insolvency or
not', is the definition of insolvency given in
(a) The Indian Partnership
Act, 1932 (b) The Sale of Goods Act,
1930 (c) The Indian Contract Act,
1872 (d) all the above. |
78 Under section 2(6) of the Sale of Goods
Act, 1930 'future goods' means (a) goods which are not yet in
existence (b) unascertained goods (c) ascertained goods (d) specific goods |
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79 'Price' under section 2(10) of the Sale
of Goods Act, 1930, means
(a) the money consideration (b) the consideration given in
the form of goods (c) partly money consideration
and partly consideration in goods (d) either (a) or (b) or (c). |
80 Under section 2(14) of the Sale of the
Goods Act, 1930, 'specific goods' means (a) goods which are capable of
identification (b) generic goods (c) goods identified and
agreed upon (d) either (a) or (c). |
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81 The Fixed Deposit Receipts (FDRs) are
goods within the meaning of section 176 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 and
section 2(7) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930. The statement is (a) false (b) ambigous(c) partly true (d)
true. |
82 A contract of sale under section 4 of
the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 (a) may be absolute (b) may be conditional (c) either (a) or (b) (d) only (a) and not (b). |
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83 The distinction between sale and
agreements to sell determines (a) rights and liabilities of
the parties to contract (b) nature of goods in the
contract (c) nature of property in the
contract (d) price of the contract. |
84 Which of the following is necessary for
the formation of the contract of sale of goods under section 5 of the Sale of
Goods Act, 1930 (a) payment (b) delivery (c) both payment and delivery (d) neither payment nor
delivery. |
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85 Under section 5 of the Sale of Goods
Act, 1930, a contract of sale of goods can be (a) in writing (b) by words of mouth (c) partly in writing and
partly by words of mouth (d) either (a) or (b) or (c). . |
86 Under section 6 of the Sale of Goods
Act, 1930, the subject-matter of a contract of sale of goods, can be (a) the existing goods owned
and possessed by the seller (b) the future goods which are
yet to be produced (c) either existing or future
goods (d) only existing goods &
not future goods. |
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87 A contract for sale of goods to be delivered
at a future date shall (a) be invalid if the seller
has not the goods in present possession (b) be invalid if the seller
has not contracted for the purchase of those goods (c) be invalid if the seller
only expects or hopes to acquire (d) not be invalid if the
seller has not got the goods in present possession nor has contracted for the
purchase of the same nor has any expectation of getting them. |
88 Under section 7 of the Sale of Goods
Act, 1930, a contract for sale of specific goods is void (a) where the goods have
perished/damaged without knowledge of the seller (b) where the goods have
perished/ damaged to the knowledge of the seller (c) where the goods have
perished/ damaged, irrespective of without or to the knowledge of the seller (d) where the goods have
perished/damaged to the knowledge of the buyer. |
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89 Under section 8 of the Sale of Goods
Act, 1930 a contract for sale of goods can be avoided where (a) the goods have
perished/damaged due to the fault of the buyer (b) the goods have perished/damaged
due to the fault of the seller (c) the goods have
perished/damaged due to the fault of either the buyer or the seller (d) the goods have
perished/damaged due to the fault neither of the buyer/nor the seller. |
90 The duty of fixing value for the goods,
under section 10 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 (a) can be delegated by the
valuer (b) can be delegated by the
valuer with the consent of the buyer (c) cannot be delegated by the
valuer (d) can be delegated by the
valuer with the leave of the court. |
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91. Where the price of the goods under a
contract of sale has to be determined by the valuation of a third party, and
the valuer fails or refuses to make the valuation, the contract under section
10 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, shall (a) become void (b) be voidable (c) remain valid (d) become
impossible. |
92 Section 11 of the Sale of Goods Act,
1930 provides for (a) stipulation as to time in
a contract of sale (b) conditions (c) warranties (d) all the above. |
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93 Which of the following Article of the
Constitution of India is related to liberty of press? |
94 A contract is - |
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95 If the Prime Minister is a member of the
Rajya Sabha? |
96 Acceptance sent through post: |
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97 Section 36 of Punjab Courts Act relates
to the powers of
a) Civil Judge
b) Judicial Magistrate
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b |
98 Spinda relationship includes
relationship by |
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99 Venereal disease to be a ground for
divorce under section 13(1)(v) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 |
100. When two persons are the descendents
of a common ancestor but by different wives, they are said to be related to
each other by |
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101. The name of the Union given in the
Constitution is |
102.
The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 extends to |
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103 Under Hindu Law the ground for divorce
is |
104 An agreement in restraint of trade in a
partnership under section 11 of the Indian Partnership Act is |
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105 Under the provisions of East Punjab
Rent Restriction Act the provisional rent is assessed at A the final disposal of the rent case when
the final orders are passed in the rent peition. B at the initial stage when application for
provisinal rent is filed and reply is filed and before the recording of the
evidence C None of the above D either a or b |
106 On which of the following grounds, a
tenant cannot be evicted- |
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107 Under the Muslim Women (Protection of
Rights on Divorce) Act, the option to be governed by the provisions of Section125
Cr.P.c., may be given by the parties |
108 Under the provisions of Hindu
Succession Act, father has been place
as A class I heir B class II heir C class III heir D None of the above |
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109 Under the provisions of Hindu Minority
and Guardianship Act the natural guardian of a male child of 5 year old is A father B mother C either a or b D nor a nor b |
110 Where applicant neither necessary nor
proper party in suit of specific performance whether his presence is
necessary for effective adjudication? (a) yes (b) no (c) conditional one (d) none of above. |
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111 Under the Specific Relief Act, a suit
for recovery of possession can be filed (a) only in respect of movable
property (b) only in respect of
immovable property (c) in respect of both movable
and immovable property (d) neither movable nor
immovable property. |
112 A suit for possession of an immovable
property, under section 6 of Specific Relief Act can be filed within (a) 1 year of dispossession (b) 6 months of dispossession (c) 3 years of dispossession (d) 12 years of dispossession. |
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113 A suit for recovery of possession of an
immovable property under section 6 of Specific Relief Act can be filed
against (a) a private individual only (b) a government (c) both a private individual
and a government (d) neither (a) nor (b). |
114 An order or decree under section 6 of the Act is
(a) appealable (b) reviewable (c) neither appealable nor
reviewable (d) both appealable and
reviewable. |
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115 A suit for possession under section 5
of Specific Relief Act, can be filed within (a) 3 years (b) 6 months (c) 12 years (d) 30 years |
116 The question of title is (a) relevant under section 6
of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (b) irrelevant under section 6
of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (c) question of title is not a
provision under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (d) none of above. |
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117 The object of section 6 of the Specific
Relief Act, 1963 is to (a) restrain a person from using
force and to disposes a person without his consent (b) is not to restrain a
person to dispossess a person (c) only (b) is correct (d) none of above. |
118 Section 13 of the Specific Relief Act,
1963 has no application when the transfer has been affected in respect of a
property (a) in which vendor has no
title or has an imperfect title (b) in which vendor has title (c) in which vendor has
imperfect title (d) none of above. |
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119 Under section 10 of Specific Relief
Act, the specific performance of the contract cannot be granted (a) if there is no concluded
contract (b) if there is a concluded
contract (c) if the compensation in
money is not an adequate relief (d) if there exists no
standard for ascertaining the actual damages. |
120 Cancellation of instrument can be
granted (a) if the instrument is void
or void-able (b) if the instrument is valid (c) both (a) & (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b). |
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121 Under section 33 compensation is
payable if (a) the benefit have been
received by the party (b) the contract is without
consideration (c) in both (a) & (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b). |
122.
Proviso to section 34 relates to
(a) suits for specific
performance (b) suits for declaration (c) suits for injunctions (d) all the above. 2 |
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123 The further relief under section 34
must be (a) the one available as
additional on the date of the suit (b) the one available after
the filing of the suit (c) the one available as
alternative on the date of the suit (d) the one available as
alternative during the pendency of the suit. |
124 The grant or refusal of relief of
declaration and injunction under the provisions of section 34 is (a) discretionary (b) mandatory (c) prohibitory (d) none of above. |
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125 What is true of temporary injunction (a) continues until a certain
specific time (b) is permanent between the
parties (c) concludes the right (d) cannot be granted
ex-parte. |
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